Question
52.What is the recommended regimen for anti-D prophylaxis for a 26-year-old Rhesus D negative woman who is not sensitized? A. 500 IU Ig at 28 weeks of gestation B. 500 IU lg anti-D at 34 weeks of gestation C. 1000 IU Ig anti-D at 28 weeks gestation D. 1500 IU Ig anti-D at 28 weeks gestation 53. A 20-year-old RhD negative woman presents with bleeding at 11 weeks of gestation. When will you consider administering anti-D lg prophylaxis to this woman? A. She goes on to have a complete miscarriage B. The bleeding is heavy but is stopping C. The bleeding is repetitive or associated with pain D. The bleeding is small and painless 54. A 28-year -old primigravida was admitted with an undiagnosed breech and opted to try for a vaginal delivery after counselling. What is the best indication that a cephalic-pelvic disproportion is unlikely to happen? A. A clinically adequate pelvis B. An estimated fetal weight that is less than 3800 g C. A frank breech presentation D.Simultaneous easy passage of the fetal thighs and trunk through the pelvis
Solution
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(169 Votos)
Ingrid
Mestre · Tutor por 5 anos
Resposta
52. The correct answer is B. 500 IU lg anti-D at 34 weeks of gestation.Anti-D RhD-negative women to prevent the development of antibodies against the D antigen during pregnancy. The recommended regimen for anti-D prophylaxis for a 26-year-old RhD-negative woman who is not sensitized is to administer 500 IU of anti-D immunoglobulin (Ig) at 34 weeks of gestation. This is done to prevent the woman's immune system from producing antibodies against the D antigen if the fetus is RhD-positive.53. The correct answer is C. The bleeding is repetitive or associated with pain.Anti-D Ig prophylaxis is considered for a RhD-negative woman who presents with bleeding during pregnancy if the bleeding is repetitive or associated with pain. This is because repetitive or painful bleeding may indicate that the woman is becoming sensitized to the D antigen, which can lead to the development of antibodies against the D antigen. Administering prophylaxis in this situation can help prevent the woman from becoming sensitized.54. The correct answer is D. Simultaneous easy passage of the fetal thighs and trunk through the pelvis.Cephalic-pelvic disproportion (CPD) occurs when the fetal head is too large to pass through the mother's pelvis, leading to obstructed labor. The best indication that CPD is unlikely to happen is if the fetal thighs and trunk can pass through the pelvis simultaneously. This suggests that the fetal head is not too large to pass through the pelvis, and the pelvis is adequate for vaginal delivery.